10th Science Quarterly Exam One-Mark Question Paper | MCQ Practice

Score full marks in section A! Download the Class 10 Science Quarterly Exam 1-mark question paper featuring essential multiple-choice questions and f

Objective questions are the fastest way to boost your score, but they require absolute precision. This Class 10 Science Quarterly Exam One-Mark Question Paper is designed to test your conceptual accuracy across the entire first-semester syllabus. Packed with crucial multiple-choice questions (MCQs), fill-in-the-blanks, assertion-reason items, and match-the-following types from physics, chemistry, and biology, this practice paper will help you eliminate minor mistakes, sharpen your recall speed, and lock in a perfect score in the objective section.


10th Science Quarterly Exam One-Mark Question Paper | MCQ Practice

SCIENCE - 10

QUARTERLY EXAM - Choose the correct answer
Ln-1
1) Inertia of a body depends on
a) weight of the object     b) acceleration due to gravity of the planet
c) mass of the object     d) Both a & b
2) Impulse is equals to
a) rate of change of momentum     b) rate of force and time
c) change of momentum     d) rate of change of mass
3) Newton's III law is applicable
a) for a body is at rest     b) for a body in motion
c) both a & b     d) only for bodies with equal masses
4) Plotting a graph for momentum on the Y-axis and time on X-axis. slope of momentum-time graph gives
a) Impulsive force     b) Acceleration     c) Force     d) Rate of force
5) In which of the following sport the turning of effect of force used
a) swimming     b) tennis     c) cycling     d) hockey
6) The unit of 'g' is m s-2. It can be also expressed as
a) cm s-1     b) N kg-1     c) N m2 kg-1     d) cm2 s-2
7) One kilogram force equals to
a) 9.8 dyne     b) 9.8 × 104 N     c) 98 × 104 dyne     d) 980 dyne
8) The mass of a body is measured on planet Earth as M kg. When it is taken to a planet of radius half that of the Earth then its value will be _______ kg
a) 4 M     b) 2M     c) M/4     d) M
9) If the Earth shrinks to 50% of its real radius its mass remaining the same, the weight of a body on the Earth will
a) decrease by 50%     b) increase by 50%     c) decrease by 25%     d) increase by 300%
10) To project the rockets which of the following principle(s) is /(are) required?
a) Newton's third law of motion     b) Newton's law of gravitation
c) law of conservation of linear momentum     d) both a and c
LN-2:
1. The refractive index of four substances A, B, C and D are 1.31, 1.43, 1.33, 2.4 respectively. The speed of light is maximum in
a) A     b) B     c) C     d) D
2. Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of same size is obtained by a convex lens
a) f     b) 2f     c) infinity     d) between f and 2f
3. A small bulb is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens. When the bulb is switched on, the lens will produce
a) a convergent beam of light     b) a divergent beam of light
c) a parallel beam of light     d) a coloured beam of light
4. Magnification of a convex lens is
a) Positive     b) negative     c) either positive or negative     d) zero
5. A convex lens forms a real, diminished point sized image at focus. Then the position of the object is at
a) focus     b) infinity     c) at 2f     d) between f and 2f
6. Power of a lens is -4D, then its focal length is
a) 4m     b) -40m     c) -0.25 m     d) -2.5 m
7. In a myopic eye, the image of the object is formed
a) behind the retina     b) on the retina     c) in front of the retina     d) on the blind spot
8. The eye defect 'presbyopia' can be corrected by
a) convex lens     b) concave lens     c) convex mirror     d) Bi focal lenses
9. Which of the following lens would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
a) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm b) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm
10. If VB, VG, VR be the velocity of blue, green and red light respectively in a glass prism, then which of the following statement gives the correct relation?
a) VB = VG = VR     b) VB > VG > VR
c) VB < VG < VR     d) VB < VG > VR
LN-3:
1. The value of universal gas constant
a) 3.81 J mol-1 K-1     b) 8.03 J mol-1 K-1
c) 1.38 J mol-1 K-1     d) 8.31 J mol-1 K-1
2. If a substance is heated or cooled, the change in mass of that substance is
a) positive     b) negative     c) zero     d) none of the above
3. If a substance is heated or cooled, the linear expansion occurs along the axis of
a) X or -X     b) Y or -Y     c) both (a) and (b)     d) (a) or (b)
4. Temperature is the average _______ of the molecules of a substance
a) difference in K.E and P.E b) sum of P.E and K.E c) difference in T.E and P.E d) difference in K.E and T.E
5. In the Given diagram, the possible direction of heat energy transformation is
A303 K B304 K C305 K

a) A ← B, A ← C, B ← C     b) A → B, A → C, B → C
c) A → B, A ← C, B → C     d) A ← B, A → C, B ← C
LN-4:
1. Which of the following is correct?
a) Rate of change of charge is electrical power. b) Rate of change of charge is current. c) Rate of change of energy is current. d) Rate of change of current is charge.
2. SI unit of resistance is
a) mho     b) joule     c) ohm     d) ohm meter
3. In a simple circuit, why does the bulb glow when you close the switch?
a) The switch produces electricity. b) Closing the switch completes the circuit. c) Closing the switch breaks the circuit. d) The bulb is getting charged.
4. Kilowatt hour is the unit of
a) resistivity     b) conductivity     c) electrical energy     d) electrical power
LN-7:
1. Which of the following has the smallest mass?
a) 6.023 × 1023 atoms of He     b) 1 atom of He
c) 2 g of He     d) 1 mole atoms of He
2. Which of the following is a triatomic molecule?
a) Glucose     b) Helium     c) Carbon dioxide     d) Hydrogen
3. The volume occupied by 4.4 g of CO2 at S.T.P
a) 22.4 litre     b) 2.24 litre     c) 0.24 litre     d) 0.1 litre
4. Mass of 1 mole of Nitrogen atom is
a) 28 amu     b) 14 amu     c) 28 g     d) 14 g
5. Which of the following represents 1 amu?
a) Mass of a C - 12 atom b) Mass of a hydrogen atom c) 1/12th of the mass of a C- 12 atom d) Mass of O - 16 atom
6. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a) 12 gram of C - 12 contains Avogadro's number of atoms. b) One mole of oxygen gas contains Avogadro's number of molecules. c) One mole of hydrogen gas contains Avogadro's number of atoms. d) One mole of electrons stands for 6.023 × 1023 electrons.
7. The volume occupied by 1 mole of a diatomic gas at S.T.P is
a) 11.2 litre     b) 5.6 litre     c) 22.4 litre     d) 44.8 litre
8. In the nucleus of 20Ca40, there are
a) 20 protons and 40 neutrons     b) 20 protons and 20 neutrons
c) 20 protons and 40 electrons     d) 40 protons and 20 electrons
9. The gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule is
a) 16 g     b) 18 g     c) 32 g     d) 17 g
10. 1 mole of any substance contains _______ molecules.
a) 6.023 × 1023     b) 6.023 × 10-23     c) 3.0115 × 1023     d) 12.046 × 1023
LN-8:
1. The number of periods and groups in the periodic table are
a) 6, 16     b) 7, 17     c) 8, 18     d) 7, 18
2. The basis of modern periodic law is
a) atomic number     b) atomic mass     c) isotopic mass     d) number of neutrons
3. _______ group contains the member of halogen family.
a) 17th     b) 15th     c) 18th     d) 16th
4. _______ is a relative periodic property
a) atomic radii     b) ionic radii     c) electron affinity     d) electronegativity
5. Chemical formula of rust is
a) FeO·xH2O     b) FeO4·xH2O     c) Fe2O3·xH2O     d) FeO
6. In the alumino thermic process the role of Al is
a) oxidizing agent     b) reducing agent     c) hydrogenating agent     d) sulphurising agent
7. The process of coating the surface of metal with a thin layer of zinc is called _______
a) painting     b) thinning     c) galvanization     d) electroplating
8. Which of the following inert gases has 2 electrons in the outermost shell.
a) He     b) Ne     c) Ar     d) Kr
9. Neon shows zero electron affinity due to
a) stable arrangement of neutrons b) stable configuration of electrons c) reduced size d) increased density
10. _______ is an important metal to form amalgam.
a) Ag     b) Hg     c) Mg     d) Al
LN-9:
1. A solution is a _______ mixture.
a) homogeneous     b) heterogeneous c) homogeneous and heterogeneous     d) non homogeneous
2. The number of components in a binary solution is
a) 2     b) 3     c) 4     d) 5
3. Which of the following is the universal solvent?
a) Acetone     b) Benzene     c) Water     d) Alcohol
4. A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of solvent at a given temperature is called
a) Saturated solution     b) Unsaturated solution c) Super saturated solution     d) Dilute solution
5. Identify the non aqueous solution.
a) sodium chloride in water     b) glucose in water c) copper sulphate in water     d) sulphur in carbon-di-sulphide
6. When pressure is increased at constant temperature the solubility of gases in liquid
a) No change     b) increases     c) decreases     d) no reaction
7. Solubility of NaCl in 100 ml water is 36 g. If 25 g of salt is dissolved in 100 ml of water how much more salt is required for saturation
a) 12g     b) 11g     c) 16g     d) 20g
8. A 25% alcohol solution means
a) 25 ml alcohol in 100 ml of water     b) 25 ml alcohol in 25 ml of water c) 25 ml alcohol in 75 ml of water     d) 75 ml alcohol in 25 ml of water
9. Deliquescence is due to
a) Strong affinity to water     b) Less affinity to water c) Strong hatred to water     d) Inertness to water
10. Which of the following is hygroscopic in nature?
a) ferric chloride     b) copper sulphate penta hydrate c) silica gel     d) none of the above
LN-12:
1. Casparian strips are present in the _______ of the root.
a) cortex     b) pith     c) pericycle     d) endodermis
2. The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of
a) root     b) stem     c) leaves     d) flower
3. The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on same radius is called
a) radial     b) amphivasal     c) conjoint     d) None of these
4. Which is formed during anaerobic respiration
a) Carbohydrate     b) Ethyl alcohol     c) Acetyl CoA     d) Pyruvate
5. Kreb's cycle takes place in
a) chloroplast     b) mitochondrial matrix c) stomata     d) inner mitochondrial membrane
6. Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis ?
a) when ATP is converted to ADP     b) when CO2 is fixed c) when H2O is splitted     d) All of these
LN-13:
1. In leech locomotion is performed by
a) Anterior sucker     b) Parapodia c) Setae     d) Contraction and relaxation of muscles
2. The segments of leech are known as
a) Metameres (somites)     b) Proglottids     c) Strobila     d) All the above
3. Pharyngeal ganglion in leech is a part of
a) Excretory system     b) Nervous system c) Reproductive system     d) Respiratory system
4. The brain of leech lies above the
a) Mouth     b) Buccal Cavity     c) Pharynx     d) Crop
5. The body of leech has
a) 23 segments     b) 33 segments     c) 38 segments     d) 30 segments
6. Mammals are _______ animals.
a) Cold blooded     b) Warm blooded     c) Poikilothermic     d) All the above
LN-14:
1. Active transport involves
a) movement of molecules from lower to higher concentration b) expenditure of energy c) it is an uphill task d) all of the above
2. Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts of the plant through
a) cortex     b) epidermis     c) phloem     d) xylem
3. During transpiration there is loss of
a) carbon dioxide     b) oxygen     c) water     d) none of the above
4. Root hairs are
a) cortical cell     b) projection of epidermal cell c) unicellular     d) both b and c
5. Which of the following process requires energy?
a) active transport     b) diffusion     c) osmosis     d) all of them
6. The wall of human heart is made of
a) Endocardium     b) Epicardium     c) Myocardium     d) All of the above
7. Which is the correct sequence of blood flow
a) ventricle → atrium → vein → arteries b) atrium → ventricle → veins → arteries c) atrium → ventricle → arteries → vein d) ventricles → vein → atrium → arteries
8. A patient with blood group O was injured in an accident and has blood loss. Which group of blood should be used by doctor for transfusion?
a) O group     b) AB group     c) A or B group     d) all blood group
9. 'Heart of heart' is called
a) SA node     b) AV node     c) Purkinje fibres     d) Bundle of His
10. Which one of the following statement is correct regarding blood composition
a) Plasma - Blood + Lymphocyte b) Serum - Blood + Fibrinogen c) Lymph - Plasma + RBC + WBC d) Blood - Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets
LN-15:
1. Bipolar neurons are found in
(a) retina of eye     (b) cerebral cortex     (c) embryo     (d) respiratory epithelium
2. Site for processing of vision, hearing, memory, speech, intelligence and thought is
(a) kidney     (b) ear     (c) brain     (d) lungs
3. In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by
(a) brain, spinal cord, muscle (b) receptor, muscle, spinal cord (c) muscle, receptor, brain (d) receptor, spinal cord, muscle
4. Dendrites transmit impulse _______ cell body and axon transmit impulse _______ cell body.
(a) away from, away from     (b) towards, away from (c) towards, towards     (d) away from, towards
5. The outer most of the three cranial meninges is
(a) arachnoid membrane     (b) piamater (c) duramater     (d) myelin sheath
6. There are _______ pairs of cranial nerves and _______ pairs of spinal nerves.
(a) 12, 31     (b) 31, 12     (c) 12, 13     (d) 12, 21
7. The neurons which carries impulse from the central nervous system to the muscle fibre.
(a) afferent neurons     (b) association neuron (c) efferent neuron     (d) unipolar neuron
8. Which nervous band connects the two cerebral hemispheres of brain?
(a) thalamus     (b) hypothalamus     (c) corpus callosum     (d) pons
9. Node of Ranvier is found in
(a) muscles     (b) axons     (c) dendrites     (d) cyton
10. Vomiting centre is located in
(a) medulla oblongata     (b) stomach     (c) cerebrum     (d) hypothalamus
11. Nerve cells do not possess
(a) neurilemma     (b) sarcolemma     (c) axon     (d) dendrites
12. A person who met with an accident lost control of body temperature, water balance, and hunger. Which of the following part of brain is supposed to be damaged?
(a) Medulla oblongata     (b) cerebrum     (c) pons     (d) hypothalamus
LN-16:
1. Gibberellins cause:
a) Shortening of genetically tall plants     b) Elongation of dwarf plants c) Promotion of rooting     d) Yellowing of young leaves
2. The hormone which has positive effect on apical dominance is:
a) Cytokinin     b) Auxin     c) Gibberellin     d) Ethylene
3. Which one of the following hormones is naturally not found in plants:
a) 2, 4-D     b) GA3     c) Gibberellin     d) IAA
4. Avena coleoptile test was conducted by
a) Darwin     b) N. Smit     c) Paal     d) F.W. Went
5. LH is secreted by
a) Adrenal gland     b) Thyroid gland c) Anterior pituitary     d) Hypothalamus.
6. Identify the exocrine gland
a) Pituitary gland     b) Adrenal gland c) Salivary gland     d) Thyroid gland
7. Which organ acts as both exocrine gland as well as endocrine gland
a) Pancreas     b) Kidney     c) Liver     d) Lungs
8. Which one is referred as "Master Gland"?
a) Pineal gland     b) Pituitary gland c) Thyroid gland     d) Adrenal gland
LN-17
1. The plant which propagates with the help of its leaves is
a) Onion     b) Neem     c) Ginger     d) Bryophyllum
2. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in
a) Amoeba     b) Yeast     c) Plasmodium     d) Bacteria
3. Syngamy results in the formation of
a) Zoospores     b) Conidia     c) Zygote     d) Chlamydospores
4. The essential parts of a flower are
a) Calyx and Corolla     b) Calyx and Androecium c) Corolla and Gynoecium     d) Androecium and Gynoecium
5. Anemophilous flowers have
a) Sessile stigma     b) Small smooth stigma c) Colored flower     d) Large feathery stigma
6. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of
a) Generative cell     b) Vegetative cell c) Microspore mother cell     d) Microspore
7. What is true of gametes?
a) They are diploid     b) They give rise to gonads c) They produce hormones     d) They are formed from gonads
8. A single highly coiled tube where sperms are stored, get concentrated and mature is known as
a) Epididymis     b) Vasa efferentia c) Vas deferens     d) Seminiferous tubules
9. The large elongated cells that provide nutrition to developing sperms are
a) Primary germ cells     b) Sertoli cells c) Leydig cells     d) Spermatogonia
10. Estrogen is secreted by
a) Anterior pituitary     b) Primary follicle c) Graafian follicle     d) Corpus luteum
11. Which one of the following is an IUCD?
a) Copper - T     b) Oral pills     c) Diaphragm     d) Tubectomy
LN-18:
1. According to Mendel alleles have the following character
a) Pair of genes     b) Responsible for character c) Production of gametes     d) Recessive factors
2. 9:3:3:1 ratio is due to
a) Segregation     b) Crossing over c) Independent assortment     d) Recessiveness
3. The region of the chromosome where the spindle fibres get attached during cell division
a) Chromomere     b) Centrosome     c) Centromere     d) Chromonema
4. The centromere is found at the centre of the _______ chromosome.
a) Telocentric     b) Metacentric     c) Sub-metacentric     d) Acrocentric
5. The _______ units form the backbone of the DNA.
a) 5 carbon sugar     b) Phosphate c) Nitrogenous bases     d) Sugar phosphate
6. Okazaki fragments are joined together by
a) Helicase     b) DNA polymerase     c) RNA primer     d) DNA ligase
7. The number of chromosomes found in human beings are
a) 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes. b) 22 autosomes and 1 allosome c) 46 autosomes d) 46 pairs autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.
8. The loss of one or more chromosome in a ploidy is called
a) Tetraploidy     b) Aneuploidy     c) Euploidy     d) polyploidy

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